CCNA, CCNP, MCSA, CCNA Final Exam, All Answer Test Module With 100/100

Chapter 6 With 100% Accurate Answers 1. Which command is used to view the RIP routing protocol settings and configuration? show version show ip route show interface **show ip protocols 2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of RIP routers that could separate HostA and HostB and still leave the hosts with connectivity to each other? 14 15 **16 17 3. In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)? when the company's ISP adds connection points to the Internet when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork when more than one interior routing protocol is used **when the company uses two or more ISPs 4. Consider this routing table entry R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1 What type of route is this? a static route a default route **a RIP route an OSPF route an EIGRP route a directly-connected route 5. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols? Exterior routing protocols

Chapter 5 With 100% Accurate Answers 1. In what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.) **SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management. SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser. SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices. **SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands. SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration. 2. Which mode will a configured router display at login? global configuration mode setup mode ROM monitor mode **user EXEC mode 3. Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of the configuration that is shown? virtual terminal only enable mode only console and virtual terminal only enable mode and virtual terminal only the service password **

1. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits? 128 254 255 **256 512 1024 2. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below. 11110010 11011011 11110110 **11100111 11100101 11101110 3. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask? **254 255 256 510 511 512 4. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT? Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address. A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address. **Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments. Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications. 5. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks? Class A Class B **Class C Class D Class E 6. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses? Publ

Chapter 3 With 100% Accurate Answers 1. Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.) faster communication speeds **improved physical security more resistant to hacker attempts **centralized cable management less electrical usage 2. Which three issues should be noted on the technician's site survey report? (Choose three.) **unlabeled cables only two power outlets per wall in each room **poor physical security of network devices horizontal cabling runs under 100 meters **lack of UPS for critical devices two users sharing the same computer 3. Which two types of cable are used for initial router configuration? (Choose two.) serial cable **rollover cable straight-through cable crossover cable patch cable **console cable 4. In addition to the inventory sheet, what other information about the hosts and networking equipment should be documented by the on-site technician while performing the site su

(True 100%) 1. Which two functions are provided by the upper layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.) placing electrical signals on the medium for transmission **initiating the network communication process **encrypting and compressing data for transmission segmenting and identifying data for reassembly at the destination choosing the appropriate path for the data to take through the network 2. Which is a function of the transport layer of the OSI model? routes data between networks converts data to bits for transmission **delivers data reliably across the network using TCP formats and encodes data for transmission transmits data to the next directly connected device 3. Which common Layer 1 problem can cause a user to lose connectivity? incorrect subnet mask incorrect default gateway **loose network cable NIC improperly installed 4. Which three command line utilities are most commonly used to troubleshoot issues at Layer 3? (Choose three.) **ping a packet sniffer Telnet **ipconfig **Trac

1. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.) the number of routers between the source and destination device the IP address of the router nearest the destination device **the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source **whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond 2. What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by medium- to large-sized businesses? (Choose three.) DSL cable modem Ethernet **metro Ethernet **T1 **T3 3. What is the maximum T1 transmission speed? 56 kbps 128 kbps **1.544 Mbps 2.4 Mbps 4. Which of the following start the test of destination reachability? **echo request issued by source echo reply issued by source echo request issued by destination echo reply issued by destination 5. Which statement describes a function of a Tier 1 ISP? **pe

1 A company is developing an Internet store for its website. Which protocol should be used to transfer credit card information from customers to the company web server? FTPS HTTP ** HTTPS WEP2 TFTP 2 Refer to the exhibit. A new branch office has been added to the corporate network and a new router is to be installed to allow branch office users to access the database server at headquarters. How should the serial 0/0/0 interface of the new branch office router be configured to connect to the headquarters router? branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.19 255.255.255.240 branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation hdlc branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.25 255.255.255.240 branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.33 255.255.255.240 **branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp branch_23(config-if)# ip address

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I don't sure in question 19, please check it. may be true answer is "The default gateway on host B is not correctly set." You can comment about your thing. (95.1%) 1. Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?   192.168.2.130/25 2. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?   the shortage of IP addresses 3. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)   reduced routing table size   reduced routing update traffic 4. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?   CIDR 5. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)   32-bit address   subnet mask 6. A router has a summary route to network 192.168

1. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).   R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]   R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2] 2. Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still valid in the routing table of Router1. How much longer will it take for Router1 to mark the route invalid by setting the metric to 16?   155 seconds 3. Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?   Router1(config-router)# passive-interface fastethernet 0/0 4. Which

1. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)   EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.   EIGRP updates are partial. 2. Which event will cause a triggered update?   a route is installed in the routing table 3. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?   3 4. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?   The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds. 5. The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link

1 Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.) the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface the highest IP address of any logical interface (true answer) the highest IP address of any physical interface the default gateway IP address (true answer) the priority value of 1 on any physical interface 2 Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has configured R1 as shown. Which two facts are true about the forwarding of route information by R1? (Choose two.) (true answer) R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30. (true answer) R1 will not forward route information for subnet 192.168.100.4/30. R1 will forward the route information with an administrative distance set to 50. R1 will forward the summarized route information for network 192.168.100.0/24. R1 will forward route information for subnet 10.10.10.0/30 out the serial interface. 3 Refer to the e